My brother in Christ, Marcus, and I have been having an informal debate over the extent of the atonement as prompted by Dan's, another fellow Arminian blogger, post on Ephesians 1. Marcus responded to that blog post here. Dan responded here. Then Marcus responded again here (you will find my comments in the combox beginning here).
This post is in response to Marcus' latest rebuttal found here.
Brennon, where does scripture say that God gives draws everyone to the same extent with the same intensity?
The Bible never says that explicitly, but I don't think it has to. With verses like John 3:16, 2 Corinthians 5:14-15, 1 Timothy 2:3-6, and 2 Peter 3:9, the burden of proof rests on the Calvinist to show that God has not provided salvation for all.
Thanks for summing up the discussion so completely.
Where does the Bible say God draws everyone period?
John 12:32 for one. Here it seems to be saying that Jesus draws everyone to Himself. It says nothing on the intensity of this drawing, but I never claimed God draws all people with the same intensity. As Acts 13:48 seems to me to be indicating, some people require less intensity in drawing them to Christ than others. Some will not respond no matter how intensely they are drawn. But the drawing is necessary in order for us to even be able to come to Jesus, and Marcus and I agree on that.
John 12:32 says "And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all peoples to Myself.” Jesus is not saying that all men - every single person is drawn to Jesus - all kinds of people are.This particular translations makes it clear - "all peoples". Brennon, you are definitely right that we do indeed agree that not everyone is drawn at the same intensity or even at the same time, but no one gets saved without that drawing.
I agree that God opens the door, but no where does scripture say that we shut the door for ourselves.
There are many places where man frustrates the desire of God to have them come to Him. Acts 7:51 is one of the most blatant in the New Testament. Right there in Acts 13:46 is another. Paul himself attributes the shutting of the door to the individuals themselves (which is important to note when trying to ascertain what verse 48 is saying). Jesus also laments over Israel's unwillingness to respond to His desire for them in Matthew 22:37 and Luke 13:34. The Old Testament has many examples as well. Every time the Israelites turned from God, they were resisting His grace.
We also agree that people frustates the desires of God to come to him. We don't want God. We don't look for Him. We never will if God does not initiate the relationship. Because this is our default position, it does not show that resisting God's grace says that we can close the door on our salvation that God has opened. It's shut from the time we begin to exist to the time God opens that door. Regarding Acts 13:46 - what else can an unregenerate man do but reject Jesus? It's not proof that grace can be resisted. Romans 8:5-8 says:
5Those who live according to the sinful nature have their minds set on what that nature desires; but those who live in accordance with the Spirit have their minds set on what the Spirit desires. 6The mind of sinful man is death, but the mind controlled by the Spirit is life and peace; 7the sinful mind is hostile to God. It does not submit to God's law, nor can it do so. 8Those controlled by the sinful nature cannot please God.
Out of the five translations I looked up, none of them translated it the way you suggested as a matter of fact the King James and World English translate it in such a way to convey the idea that those who believe were chosen beforehand.
I content that even in the English translations cited the verse need not be taken as an irresistible foreordained appointment. However, it shall be noted that many of the translators are Calvinists and may be reading an interpretation into the text. Maybe the tradition should be bucked (as I've heard it may be in the update to the NIV).
As a doctoral student who is studying Greek pointed out to me, the "BDAG (the most authoritative Greek lexicon) gives two definitions for τάσσω, the first of which is 'to bring about an order of things by arranging' and provides the glosses 'arrange, put in place'." This would be the rendering that the Arminian would support. The second definition from BDAG is order, fix, determine, appoint. This would be the Calvinistic rendering. It's interesting to note that the BDAG assigns Acts 13:48 the first meaning.
I admit that I don't read Greek, nor can I use the grammar well but I don't see any difference between the two definitions. I mean to put something in place or to arrange something really isn't different firom fixing or determining or appointing with regards to that which is being τάσσω.
I need to correct what I said about middle voice in my previous response. I said it would make the passage read "those who were disposed to eternal life believed." However, this is actually the passive sense. The middle voice would make it read "to those who disposed themselves to eternal life believed."
If we consider the context given by verse 46, it would seem awkward that those who refused the gospel had thrust it away themselves, yet there was a fore-ordination of those who did accept the calling. It seems far more likely that those who were appointed were appointed because they were open, or disposed, to believing the gospel. Those who had shut the door missed this appointment.
I have to disagree. I think scripture plainly gives complete credit four our accepting the call to repentance and our rejection as own fault. I don't see how they shut the door because the door was shut for them in the first place.
The only other place I have heard the translation you suggest was from Steve Gregg in his debate with James White on the radio back in April 2008. Dr White ended that real quick. To be fair, you defended it much better than Mr. Gregg.
Most Calvinists are prepared to handle the middle voice argument (which was my mistake in mentioning), but the passive voice is far stronger. Considering that we have an authoritative lexicon assigning Acts 13:48 with the passive sense, I would be inclined to take its advice over a Calvinist polemicist who enjoys verbally pounding on his opponents. Plus, what do you do with verse 46 in the meantime?
I think I have dealt with Acts 13:46. Luke is not setting up a parallel between why the Jews rejected the call and the Gentiles accepted the call. He is merely stating why each group responded the way they did. I also think that James White deserves more credit than what you have stated. Brennon, did you listen to the debate between Steve Gregg and James White?
I know you agree with the scriptures that say that we are unable to choose to follow Christ unless the Father draws us (Not all .people who call themselves Arminians say that, but all Calvinists do). If no one is seeking God and is going astray, then what happens that causes a man or woman to change?
God shows them His grace. God must free the person's will in order for them to make a conscious decision whether to accept His gift of grace or not. God the Holy Spirit acts upon the heart of a man when that man is exposed to the grace of God. Upon the hearing of the word, the Spirit of God calls the sinner to repent of his sins, draws the sinner to accept Christ, enables the sinner to accept Christ, and convicts the sinner of his or her sins and their need for Christ. After being enabled by the Spirit, the response of the sinner is passive. The sinner must stop resisting, repent of their sins, and place their faith in Christ. This gift, like any gift, is not irresistible. The sinner must accept the unmerited gift of God. Once this is done, following the plan of the Father, the Spirit joins the sinner to Jesus and thus begins the Savior's relationship with the sinner.
You have articulated the salvation process as I would have about 10 years ago. What changed my mind was the realization that all people are hell bound as a default. It's not up in the air, until a person makes a decision - from the time you are born and accountable for your sins (we'll skip the babies, young children, and mientally handicapped for now) you, me, all people deserve hell. And the understanding that no one can be saved unless they are drawn. If I understand you, you are saying that God tweaks a person just enough so that they can make a free decision. However, if God has to and does nudge you just enough so that you can says yes (and you would not say yes otherwise) why doesn't he nudge everyone so that they say yes and no one has to go hell?
You have said you believe that God gives one enough faith to make a decision
I am one that says faith is not given by God. Faith is something we have in God. The ability to have faith is given by God. If you want to say faith is from God in that sense, that's fine with me, but faith is something we have in response to God's grace. Yes, I believe God gives all sufficient grace to exercise this faith.
Okay. The problem is we know that by default no one has faith. We have nothing and have no ability to please God. (Romans 8:5-8; Hebrews 11:6)
What person in their right mind, who fully understands the Gospel, would be stupid enough to say "No."?
People who choose to say no to God. We're not really in our right minds until changed by God. Some people are darkened by their own volition and choose not to accept the light given to them.
The thing is you have described every single human being who has ever lived, but Jesus and does not speak to my point: What is it that make a person say "Yes" after by definition they said "No,"?
Yet intelligent people do that. So you have to ask are those who say "Yes" smarter or better in some way?
Not necessarily. They simply choose to remain in their sins. Who knows all of the reasons but God?
There is nothing about me better than any unbeliever. Nothing!
Well actually, in Calvinism, there is. You're individually and unconditionally elected by God. You're de facto better than the non-elect from the outset of eternity.
No, that is not what Calvinists believe. Calvinism does not explain why the elect are chosen other than that God wanted to do.- "His good pleasure" (Ephesians 1:9). I don't know why He chose me and you to believe and not nudge others so that they do too. The best I can do it offer what Calvin, Luther, and my mother said - none of our business.
So why do people choose to reject the very thing - the only thing - that can save them?
They choose to do it. You're assuming something has to cause them to do this, but that's what those of us who hold to libertarian free will dispute; that something must cause us to choose what we do. We believe the will is truly free to do what it is able to do. When freed by God, you are completely unconstrained by anything in your choice. You must actually choose to accept God.
No. Scripture says that it is God causing us to accept God. We deny and run away from God by default. It's what we do. Ypo reject Christ is choosing to turn your back on that freedom....all the while thinking you are free. Calvinists if they believe the Bible do not deny that people choose to reject or accept God by an act of will. Calvinists come up with a different answer for how and why we do it.
Marcus quotes Matthew 11:27, apparently thinking this supports his view. But this verse doesn't say Jesus only reveals the Father to a select group of individuals. No! The very next verse records Jesus as saying, "Come to Me, all you who labor and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest." Jesus is calling everyone who is beaten down by the legalism of the day. This isn't limiting the scope of Christ's calling, it is widening it! Anyone who is weary of their sin can go to Him.
Matthew ll:27 does not say that Jesus chooses to reveal the Father to everyone either. Because the Father is not revealed to everyone, that tells us that it's limited to Jesus' will and choice. I don't think verse 28 is saying that all persons are being called - just the ones Jesus has chosen to reveal the Father.
All believers - the church are predestined, but God knows which individuals are in that group.
Correct. However, foreknowledge does not equal fore-ordination. God knowing people who will enter into union with Christ does not mean He caused them to do so.
How can you say that God does not cause us to enter into union with Christ in that we can't go unless He enables us to do so?
The thing is White said that God did not just predestion the group but the individuals in that group
That's what we disagree on. Predestining a group which individuals must meet certain conditions to join does not mean God has forgotten the individuals. In fact, the Arminian view says that God sincerely and honestly draws all individuals to Himself. He cares for every last person on earth. He wants us all to accept His forgiveness. But He wants this done freely, not by a pre-decreed, unalterable chain of determined events. As WLC points out, "God could produce certain chemical reactions in our brains that would issue in what we'd normally describe as loving behavior toward Him, but it would be a sham, a puppet-like response. To have a
genuine love relationship with us, God must put up with the possibility of rebellion."
I admire William Lane Craig (WLC) but I have to disagree with him on this, partly. He rejects that we are hostile to God prior to conversion. God is not just putting up with the possibility of rebellion because before we are saved we are already in a state of rebellion, unwilling and unable to stop. His theology does not address this problem. Your's attempts to but tries to hold on to libertarian free will. The truth is if it's going to keep my butt out of hell, I'll be God's puppet but I think it's way more complicated then that. It's not just that God has purposes and plans he has specific ways in which he wants to carry them out - that include allowing evil to exist. As many great apologists and theologians have pointed out that if God decided to annihilate evil now he would have to obliterate everyone starting with us.
Is the verse saying that he (The Father) chose Jesus before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless in his sight
No, it's saying that the Father chose us in Christ; believers as a result of choosing Christ. He chose Christ as the avenue of salvation from the foundation of the world, and in light of that those who are in Christ are chosen as a consequence of being united to Christ. It's like saying I chose a potato chip in light of having chosen the potato chip bag off of the shelf. As Robert Picrilli points out in his book Grace, Faith, and Free Will, "Christ Himself, first and foremost, was God's darling, His chosen One. Individuals are chosen in saving union with Christ" (65).
I agree that Jesus is the key but Ephesians 1:4-5 clearly says that we - believers- were chosen before the foundation of the world.
4For he chose us in him before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in his sight. In love 5he predestined us to be adopted as his sons through Jesus Christ, in accordance with his pleasure and will—
To construe the passage to be saying He chose us in order for us to be in Christ is adding to the passage.
Um, but that is what Paul wrote.
Jesus was not chosen to be holy and blameless because Jesus always was, is, and will be holy and blameless.
You're correct. I was not saying that. I was saying that God chose that those in Christ would be holy and blameless. Those who believe in Jesus in response to the grace of God by their choice are predestined to be adopted by God and made holy and blameless.
I agree, except for the "by their choice": part because they could not made that choice without God's intervention.. Brennon thanks again for dialoguing with me!
Brennon's Thoughts: Debating the Extent of the Atonement with Marcus